Does the Word “Abortion” Appear in the Didache(1)?
(A short exegesis and reflection on the answer)
by Mike Drabik of Toledo, Ohio
January 10, 2013
“ou phoneuseis teknon en pfthora” - “You shall not murder a child in destruction”. (Literal translation from the Didache, Chapter 2:2)
Many pro-lifers believe the word “abortion” itself appears in the Didache and the Catholic Church uses this sentence as proof that the prohibition on abortion goes back to the first century A.D. The Internet has a huge number of message board, Facebook and Twitter postings, blogs and webpages and sites (most of which are by Catholic Christians or Evangelical Christians) all affirming, some with great passion, that the word “abortion” is in that early Church teaching document and then use it to advance a fact that the Church’s pro-life teachings banning abortion are almost 2000 years old and, by this very longevity, abortion as an absolute evil, must be true. However, I think many pro-lifers, would be surprised (some even shocked) to learn, that the word is NOT there.
The phrase “child destruction” does appear in English laws - and can be rendered “abortion”. However, that phrase in English laws seems more likely to refer to killing a child in the process of being born. That would be like a late-term abortion today.
In Latin, I found in a book published in the last couple of centuries of the 2nd Millennium (18th or 19th) in which the Greek sentence is translated as “non interficies foetum in abortione” which I translate to “you will not kill the fetus in abortion”. So, in this rather modern Latin translation, the phrase is translated by the author as a prohibition of abortion., But the Greek word for abortion (aublose) never appears in the Greek Didache. So, this Latin translation imposes upon the Greek.
Further, the Catechism of the Catholic Church takes the exact quote from Chapter 2 of the Didache and translates the Greek text exactly the way at author of that Latin text did. So, in the official Latin version of the CCC it is: “Non interficies foetum in abortione ” (CCC ¶ 2271). This is translated into English as “You shall not kill the embryo in abortion”. Maybe “foetum” can be translated as “embryo”, but the standard translation is fetus; so the CCC takes even further liberties - in the English at least.
If that English CCC text was the actual literal Greek from the Didache, translated and transliterated it would be:
• “den skotosei to embpuo apo aublose”
For comparison the actual transliterated original Greek words of the Didache repeated from above:
• “ou phoneuseis teknon en phthora”.
Not even similar.
The key here is how the Greek work “phthora” is used because this affects how the entire sentence is translated. In both the Latin and English quoted texts above the word is being translated as “abortion” - even though, as was shown, the Greek language has its own word for abortion. Is there another place to look for this word as used by a Greek that might be translated or associated with the word “abortion”? Yes. Where? At first glance this might seem to be within the writings of a Christian leader who lived in the first century - St. Barnabas.
Between A.D. 80- 120 an epistle was written and attributed to St. Barnabas (co-worker and friend of St. Paul the Apostle) or to St. Barnabas of Alexandria or another unnamed Christian leader of the Apostolic era. It is a general exhortation to Christians and explanation of the Christian way of life.
At 19:5 of the work can be found the word "phthora" used exactly in the same way as used in the Diadche. Here is the quotation:
"ou phoneuseis teknon en phthora"
I think one can see that this sentence is an exact duplicate of the sentence in the Didache. So, really nothing is gained here. St. Barnabas either directly copied and repeated the prohibition from the Didache in his epistle or else this shows that the prohibition was becoming (or had become) a common teaching in the early Church. One must look elsewhere for the use of "phtora". Where might that be? The ancient Hippocratic Oath.
In that venerable document, Hippocrates has the oath-taker, a physician, swear that he will not, while practicing his art, give a woman pessary “agents” to cause a miscarriage. A pessary is a suppository which would have been inserted into the vagina to cause a woman to go into labor and ultimately suffer a miscarriage. In many English translations the words “pessary agent” is translated as “abortifacient. Other translations make the phrase out as “shall not cause a woman to suffer an abortion”. The word “agent” is translated from the Greek word “phthoria” - the plural of “phthorium” - the plant juice smeared on the suppository or embedded in it to help to induce a miscarriage.
“Phthora”, and “phthoria” and “phthorium”, all have the same root. This clearly shows that words could be associated with miscarriages and abortions in ancient times and thus, in context, that it is what the author/authors of the Didache meant by using “phthora”.
Among the Latin speaking peoples, Pliny the Elder, a Roman who lived in the first century A.D., in his famous tome on Natural History (Chapter 14) while discussing wines and vines wrote " . . . cucumis silvester aut scammonia, quod vinum phthorium vocatur, quoniam abortus(2) facit”. This translates to: ". . . wild cucumber or scammony whose vine is called a phthorium, because it will cause miscarriages". Pliny transliterates the Greek word “phthoria” into Latin to describe the destructive drug or potion that causes miscarriages, scammony.
Scammony is a plant whose juice when taken internally will change into a powerful purgative in the human duodenum and when ingested in a large dose will cause an extremely violent intestinal reaction. If a pregnant woman should take a large enough dose internally or by means of a suppository saturated with it and then inserted into her vagina, would cause such violent cramps in her gut that she would miscarry her unborn child. As this would be brought on, not by accident, but with deliberation, it would be seen a type of an abortion as we moderns understand it - but not as the ancients did. The point is that the drug or potion, the “phthorium”, then, is NOT the abortion itself.
The Gospel and Epistle writers (especially St. Paul the Apostle) in the Bible’s New Testament (written in Greek) use the word “phthora” But in those cases the word is used to mean - destroy, corrupt, defile, decay or wither. It is not used nor connected in those senses with the words “miscarriage” or “abortion”.
The same word also appears as a compound word just a few lines earlier in the Didache. This is “paidophthorhsein” “Paido” mean male child/boy. The connection to “phthora” is evident in the second part: “phthorhsein”. Here it means “corrupt” or “defile” and the whole word means “to corrupt or defile a boy-child”. It is part of a prohibition against adult males having sexual relations with a male child(3).
I think it should be quite clear by now the actual word “abortion” does not appear in the Didache. Only by inference can that be gotten and that is not enough to translate “phthora” as “abortion” in English and remain faithful to the Greek text.
However, in reflecting on all this, it is clear that the evil of abortion is self-evident. The use of the word “phthora” in the first century in the Didache does show that the “sensus fidie” (the understanding of the faith) present in each the member of the faithful even then understood that the evil of deliberately causing a miscarriage (ending the life of the unborn) to happen was self-evident and that its practice had to be banned and condemned to truly be able to live out a redeemed life in Christ Jesus who is life itself incarnate. It was part of trying to follow the apostolic exhortation not to be corrupted by the current Age - “kosmos”.
However, to translate the Greek word “phthora” into English as the word “abortion” is, I think, to mislead the English speaking peoples into believing that the early Church leaders used the actual word in the first century in their teachings when, in fact, they never did(4).
To do that I believe arms secularists with arguments that allow them to boldly proclaim or through subtle inference state that Church leaders are really hood-winking people by using a false and misleading translation of that ancient Greek word to advance an anti-abortion agenda - an agenda, they might say, which does not stretch back almost 2000 years but only a century or two at the most and decades at the least - and being therefore nothing more than a modern contrivance that can be dispensed with.
In conclusion, self-evident truths, like the evil of abortion, do NOT need any help to be made apparent. They already are and their very open and honest telling is all that is needed to make them understood. When translating these ancient texts and words about these truths, I believe it is much better to state what’s really there even if that makes it a little more difficult for those who teach to explain the truth.
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(1)Didache means Teaching and is a shortened version of the title which is “Didache Kryiou dia tou Dodeka Apostolon tois Ethnean” meaning “The Teaching of the Lord through the Twelve Apostles to the Nations”. It was composed (and added to and edited several times) between A.D. 50 to A.D. 125.
(2)The Latin word "abortus" which is associated with the Latin word "phthorium" in Pliny's text does NOT mean abortion. The Latin word "abortus" means miscarriage and here, as used by Pliny, it is plural - miscarriages. The Latin word for abortion, as seen in the Latin sentence quoted above from that late 2nd Millenium book and in the CCC is "abortio". That word in those quotes has the form "abortione" because nouns in the Latin language have endings which change with their placement in a sentence. This is not to say the word "abortus" was never used to mean abortion by the ancients - there are always exceptions. But the primary understanding when they used it was to mean "miscarriage". To translate it as the word "abortion" then is to impose on the word a modern understanding of it - not how they understood it.
(3)Why would translators do it then? One reason might be to make it simpler for English readers. Another might be to try to forcefully, in English, make a point about the abortion issue. A third might well be to advance an agenda at any cost. There are probably other reasons too.
(4)I’m sure those who know me will see that this word Greek word “paidophthorhsein” touches another interest of mine, but that is beyond the scope of this discussion. However, I’m thinking about writing about how a contrived understanding of that word’s appearance in the Didache, which I have encountered at gatherings of Church sexual abuse survivors and also have read in works published on the Internet and in hard-copy books by many advocates for survivors of those who were sexually abused by Catholic priests, is being used as by these people as a proof text that shows that the sexual abuse of children was a regularly covered-up practice already occurring in the Church as early as the Apostolic era - the first century A.D.
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And how would I translate the Greek sentence? In Latin: “Non interficies parvulum phthorio”. In English: “You shall not murder a child by means of a destructive potion that induces a miscarriage.” That comes about as close, I think, as one can get to saying “Thou shalt not abort . .” as one can get and remain, I think, faithful to the meaning of the text while not imposing upon it.
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*Note: this is a work in progress which I will amend at will at anytime for any reason - while still keeping this out there for all to read. I've already edited it several times since I published it. And as I read more from the ancient documents, now so readily available on the Internet - in modern English and Spanish and ancient Latin and Greek, the more I think it'll become clearer that the answer posed in the question in the title of this post is "No". What I'm really seeing here, I think, is the principle of the "Development of Doctrine" in action on the teaching on abortion - and I'm very comfortable with that even if it pops somebody else's bubble or sheds more light on the subject while I get where I'm goin'. Post if you wish for whatever reason you desire: to object, to agree, to disagree, to suggest or even just to vent your spleen - no matter which side your're on.
The process of exegesis and translation is a very subjective thing - often involving much experimentation and revision. So, be aware this ain't no debate and I'll come to my own conclusions, thank you very much. (01/15/12).
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Edited my translation today (01/17/13). Changed " . . . 'causes a miscarriage' to 'induces a miscarriage'. After reading the English translation of the Greek Physican Soranus's (fl. AD. 98 to 138) 'Gynaecology'. Therein with precision he seems to distinguish between a destrucitve/abortive (that with and brings on a miscarriage ) and as opposed to that which happens by nature. Need to add this to main text.
“Ego delustro sic non tu poteris nutu”.
I disabuse so you can’t snooze.